Chest radiography should be performed using 72 inches SID whenever possible in order to

Fracture of the _____ _____ is one of the most common skeletal fractures.

The lateral aspect of the distal Humerus presents a raised, smooth, rounded surface, the __________, which areticulates with the superior surface of the radial head.

The _____ is on the medial aspect of the distal Humerus and articulates with the semilunar notch of the Ulna.

Just proximal to the capitulum and trochlea are the lateral and medial _______.

What is found on the posterior distal Humerus and functions to accommodate the olecrannon process with the elbow in extension?

In the AP projection of the knee, the:
1. patella is visualized through the femur
2. CR is directed 1/2 an inch distal to the patellar base
3. CR is directed 3-5° cephalad when the distance between the table top and the ASIS is 17 cm

A Colles fracture usually involves the following:
1. Transverse fracture of the proximal radius
2. Posterior and outward displacement of the hand
3. Chip fracture of the Ulnar styloid process

Which of the following projections requires that the humeral epicondyles be superimposed?
1. Lateral thumb
2. Lateral wrist
3. Lateral humerus

In the 15-20 degree mortise oblique position of the ankle, the:
1. Talofibular joint is visualized
2. Talotibial joint is visualized
3. Plantar surface should be vertical

The following projections should not be performed until a transverse fracture of the patella has been ruled out:
1. AP knee
2. Lateral knee
3. Axial/ tangential patella

Which of the following best demonstrates the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal?
Lateral foot
Lateral oblique foot
Medial oblique foot
Weight-bearing foot

The left SI joint is placed perpendicular to the IR when the patient is placed in a:

25-30 degree RPO position

The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
Medial oblique
Lateral oblique
AP
Lateral

An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture not visualized using a perpendicular central ray. When examining the clavicle in the AP axial projection, how should the central ray be directed?

The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates:
1. A lateral projection of the shoulder
2. Anterior or posterior dislocation
3. An oblique projection of the shoulder

In the AP axial projection (towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30 degrees caused to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
1. Facial bones
2. Frontal bone
3. Occipital bone
4. Basal foramina

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
1. Open mouth projection
2. Moving mandible AP
3. Flexion and extension laterals
4. Right and left bending

The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the central ray be directed:

2 inches above the pubic symphysis

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the oblique projection of the thoracic spine?
1. Intervertebral joints
2. Zygapophyseal joints
3. Intervertebral foramina

The thoracic vertebrae are unique in that they participate in the following articulations:
Costovertebral
Costotransverse
Costochondral

Costovertebral
Costotransverse

In order to demonstrate undistorted air/fluid levels, the CR must always be directed:

All of the following statements regarding the PA projection of the skull, with central ray perpendicular to the IR, are true, except:
OML is perpendicular to the IR
Peyton’s ridges fill the orbits
MSP is parallel to the IR
Central ray exits at the nasion

MSP is parallel to the IR

Which of the paranasal sinuses is composed of many thin walled air cells?

The intervertebral joints of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the:

Midsagital plane (MSP) parallel to the IR.

Which of the following structures is subject to blowout fracture?
Ethmoid sinuses
Zygomatic arch
Mandibular condyle
Orbital floor

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the:

Which of the following is (are) important when positioning the patient for a PA projection of the chest?
1. The patient should be examined in the erect position
2. Clavicles should be brought above the apices
3. Scapulae should be brought lateral to the lung fields.

Chest radiography should be performed using 72 inch SID whenever possible in order to:
1.Visualize vascular markings
2.Obtain better lung detail
3.Maximize magnification of the heart

Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can be an indication of:

What condition is characterized by flattening of the diaphragm?

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate:

Pneumothorax
Foreign body

Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a good PA projection of the chest?
1. Ten posterior ribs visualized
2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical
3. Scapulae should be outside the lung fields

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true, except:
A. The right lung has three lobes
B. The uppermost portion of a lung is its apex
C. The lobes of the left lung are separated by the horizontal fissure
D. The trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi

To demonstrate the pulmonary apices below the level of the clavicles in the AP position, the CR should be directed:

Radiographic indications of atelectasis include:
1. Decreased radiographic density/ increased brightness of the affected side
2. Elevation of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side
3. Flattening of the hemidiaphragm of the affected side

During IVU, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate:
1. Filling of the obstructed ureters
2. The renal pelvis
3. The superior calyces

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called:

What projections can be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels when the erect position cannot be obtained?

Dorsal decubitus
Lateral decubitus

How do you describe the relationship between the esophagus and the trachea?

Esophagus is posterior to trachea

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in the:

The usual preparation for an upper GI series includes:

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate a double contrast visualization of the left and right colic flexures?
1. Left lateral decubitus
2. AP recumbent
3. Right lateral decubitus
4. AP erect

In which of the following positions are a barium filled pyloric canal and duodenal bulb best demonstrated during a GI series?
RAO
Left Lateral
Recumbent PA
Recumbent AP

What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient?

What barium/ air filled anatomic structures are best illustrated in the RAO position?
Splenic flexure
Hepatic flexure
Sigmoid colon
Ileocecal valve

In what order should the following studies be conducted?
1. Barium enema
2. Intravenous urogram
3. Upper GI

All of the following statements regarding the urinary system are true, except:
A. The left kidney is usually higher than the right
B. The kidneys move inferiority in the erect position
C. The upper, expanded part of the ureter is the hilum
D. Vessels, nerves, and lymphatics pass through the renal hilum

What exams require restrictions on a patients diet?

During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate:

Barium filled fundus
Double co yeast visualization of distal stomach portions

What exams require catheterization of the ureters?

Some common mild side effects of intravenous administration of water soluble iodinated contrast agents include:
1. Flushed feeling
2. Bitter taste
3. Urticaria

Hysterosalpingograms May be performed for the following reasons:
1. Demonstration of fistulous tracts
2. Investigation of infertility
3. Demonstration of tubal patency

A postvoid image of the urinary bladder is usually requested at the completion of an intravenous urogram and may be helpful in demonstrating:

Residual urine
Prostate enlargement

During routine IVU, the oblique position demonstrates the:

Kidney of the side up, parallel to the IR

To better demonstrate contrast filled distal ureters during IVU, it is helpful to:
1. Use a 15 degree AP trendelenburg position
2. Apply compression to the proximal ureters
3. Apply compression to the distal ureters

The space located between the arachnoid and dura mater is the:

During a GI exam, the lateral recumbent projection of a stomach of average shape will demonstrate:
1. Anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach
2. Medial and lateral aspects of the stomach
3. Double contrast body and antral portions

The method by which contrast filled vascular images are removed from superimposition upon bone is called:

Indicate correct sequence of oxygenated blood as it returns from the lungs to the heart:

Pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aortic valve

In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the:

Subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

The upper chambers of the heart are the:

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate:

Posterior protrusion of the herniated intervertebral disk

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the:
Brachiocephalic artery
Common carotid arteries
Vertebral arteries

Common carotid arteries
Vertebral arteries

Venous or deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the:

Inferior vena cava
Superior vena cava
Coronary sinus

The apex of the heart is formed by the:

Why should chest radiographs be performed with a 72 inch SID?

What is the minimum recommended SID when performing chest radiographs?

What Sid is used during most radiographic procedures?

What is the recommended SID for a supine AP chest radiograph?