ISSA Study Guide
Post 17 of 32
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Post 17 of 32 in the ISSA Study Guide
Post Content
1: Which % of 1RM is the proper training zone to promote training effect?
55%-85%
2: Describe the outcomes of training at 55%-65% 1RM vs. 75% 1RM vs 85%+ 1RM and the significance of this in deciding suitable training loads based on client goals
55%-65% 1RM (muscular endurance)
75% 1RM (hypertrophy)
85%+ maximal Strength increase in serum testosterone and HGH
3: Define a simple way to evaluate if your client should raise his/her resistance training exercise intensity
Bigger muscle groups recover slower than smaller ones.
Fast-twitch (or white) muscle fibers recover slower than slow-twitch (red ones).
Recovery from quick movements takes longer than recovery from movements that are slower.
Men recover faster than women.
Young clients recover faster than older ones.
Using heavyweights will require more recovery time than lifting with lighter
weights.
More repetitions, sets, and frequency need longer recovery periods than fewer repetitions, frequency and sets.
4: Name and describe the 8 technologies of the ISSAs integrated training approach
Biomechanics
Therapeutic modalities
Light resistance training
Neutral supplementation
Medical support
Heavy resistance training
Dietary manipulation
5: What is the overall training repetition and set “scheme” for these and why:
endurance
training: 2-3 x12+
hypertrophy: 3-6 x 6-12
strength: 2-6 x 6 or less
power: 3-5 x 1-2
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issa - Personal Trainer Certification Exam
Section: 3 (Questions 81 - 120)
81. What bone runs parallel to the fibula?
- Radius
- Femur
- Tibia
- Ulna
82. Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers known as which of the following?
- Actin and tropomyosin
- Tropin and myosin
- Tropoactin and myosin
- Actin and myosin
83. A conditioned client's resting heart rate will be which of the following?
- Less than 60 BPM
- 61-70 BPM
- 71-80 BPM
- More than 81 BPM
84. If a client has a hard time touching their head to the wall during postural analysis, they may have which of the following postural deviations?
- Tight shoulders
- Swayback
- Kyphosis
- Forward head
85. The incorporation of which of the following in a program can help reduce the extent of DOMS?
- Static stretching
- Warm-up
- Cool-down
- HIIT
86. Which principle states that we all undergo stress in three stages: shock, compensation, and exhaustion?
- Individual differences
- GAS
- Overload
- Specificity
87. When administering a skin-fold assessment, which side of the body should all measurements be taken on for body fat?
- Left
- Front
- Right
- Back
88. What exercise should be performed LAST?
- Shuttle runs
- Power snatch
- Overhead press
- Front raise
89. Which resistance training system helps to increase intensity and optimize time?
- Rest-pause
- Pyramid
- Occlusion
- Superset
90. Which of the following is caused by pain or stiffness in the skeletal joints?
- Asthma
- Hypertension
- Arthritis
- Coronary heart disease
91. What does BMI stand for?
- Body metabolic index
- Body mass index
- Basal metabolic index
- Basal mass index
92. Which of the following represents a portion control strategy for women regarding carbohydrates?
- 4 cups a day
- 1 cupped handful
- 120 grams
- 3 servings
93. Obesity and stress are confirmed risk factors for which of the following?
- Arthritis
- Coronary heart disease
- Type II diabetes
- Kidney disease
94. Which muscle fiber type is best for a 1RM test?
- Actin
- Myosin
- Type II
- Type I
95. Macrocycles, mesocycles, and microcycles are a part of which training protocol?
- Synchronization
- Optimization
- Periodization
- Stabilization
96. What exercise should be performed FIRST?
- Broad jump
- Back squat
- Split squat
- Power clean
97. Which of the following is responsible for sensing excessive stretch to protect the muscle?
- Golgi tendon organ
- Muscle spindle
- Muscle fiber
- Sarcomere
98. Which of the following rep ranges is appropriate for a client training for hypertrophy?
- 1-3
- 4-6
- 8-12
- 12 or more
99. Body composition testing determines which of the following?
- Lean mass and fat mass
- Overall bodyweight
- Somatotype classification
- Body mass index
100. Which type of muscle fiber is highly resistant to fatigue and injury?
- Type I
- Fast twitch
- "Couch potato" fibers
- Type II
101. The gluteus maximus is located superior to which muscle?
- Biceps brachii
- Erector spinae
- Gastrocnemius
- Brachioradialis
102. Which of the following detects the magnitude of mechanical stress at the musculotendinous junction?
- Nociceptors
- Muscle spindles
- Golgi tendon organ
- Chemoreceptors
103. A trainer has a client request their records; how must that request be made?
- Over the phone
- In a face to face conversation
- Only in writing
- Asking the trainer's manager
104. Metabolism can be categorized in which of the following phases?
- Symbiosis and anabolism
- Morphosis and catabolism
- Symbiosis and catabolism
- Catabolism and anabolism
105. Which contraction helps to generate enough tension in muscles to contract explosively?
- Eccentric
- Ballistic
- Concentric
- Isometric
106. Which muscle fiber type is best for competing in a triathlon?
- Type I
- Type II
- Type IIA
- Type III
107. Which of the following is total energy expenditure?
- Sum of a client's resting metabolic rate, physical activity, and thermic effect of food
- A client's resting metabolic rate minus physical activity
- A client's resting metabolic rate minus thermic effect of food
- Sum of a client's resting metabolic rate, sedentary activity, and thermic effect of food
108. Which joint performs adduction, abduction, horizontal adduction and abduction, medial and lateral rotation, and circumduction?
- Spine
- Shoulder
- Knee
- Ankle
109. In order to calculate lean and fat mass, you must multiply the body fat percentage by which of the following?
- Height
- Age
- Activity level modifier
- Total body weight
110. What is the term for when inspired oxygen during the recovery phase from exercise is in excess of resting needs?
- Oxygen deficit
- Oxygen debt
- Aerobic fitness
- Anaerobic fitness
111. Utilizing the valsalva maneuver gives up to how much greater force?
- 5%
- 10%
- 15%
- 20%
112. Which of the following determines how many meals a client should eat per day?
- The trainer's discretion
- Client preference
- According to how the client's body responds
- It should always be 5 meals per day
113. What is primarily responsible for strength gains in beginning clients?
- Hypertrophy adaptations
- Neural adaptations
- Environmental adaptations
- Anaerobic adaptations
114. When the scapular adductors are weak, which postural deviation can occur?
- Swayback
- Kyphosis
- Forward head
- Lordosis
115. Which of the following is primarily responsible for strength gains in youth clients?
- Hypertrophy training
- Neurological factors
- Power training
- Environmental factors
116. When developing a client's training plan, the entire training cycle is referred to as which of the following?
- Macrocycle
- Mesocycle
- Microcycle
- Foundational
117. Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise?
- Moderate aerobic training
- Lying in the supine position
- Stretching before and after exercise
- Consuming additional calories
118. When creating rigidity in the torso, which of the following involves expiring against a closed glottis, combined with contracting muscles of the abdomen and rib cage?
- Heimlich maneuver
- Valsalva maneuver
- Mueller maneuver
- Diaphragmatic maneuver
119. A client performs 8 repetitions of seated leg press at 320 lbs., what is their estimated 1RM?
- 420 lbs.
- 400 lbs.
- 460 lbs.
- 480 lbs.
120. How many hours of activity should portion sizes for meals be enough to sustain for?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Answer & Explanation
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Step-by-step explanation
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