Which positioning line is perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA projection of the mandible?

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Radio graphic Imaging Protocols
Which line should be perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA skull projection?
Which positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for a PA projection of the mandible quizlet?
Which of the following is centered to the image receptor for the PA projection of the mandibular Rami?
Which 2 positioning lines or planes should be perpendicular to the IR for the PA projection of the skull?

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Radio graphic Imaging Protocols

Question	Answer
To extend a joint means to bend it, reducing the angle between adjacent bones.	False
Inferior refers to:	Part away from the head end of the body
Which of the following is true of the hypersthenic body type?	Lungs are short and broad at bases
The 10-day rules for x-rays of female patients to be done:	During the first 10 days following the onset of menstruation
Medial means toward the median plane of the body.	True
Abduct means to:	Move a part away from the central axis of the body.
Which of the following is true of the asthenic body type?	Lungs are long and broader at tops than at bases.
Distal refers to:	Away from the origin of a part.
Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility of a radiographer before performing a radio graphic study?	All of the Above.
At what vertebral level is the sternal angle found?	T4-T5
Which of the following is a recumbent position?	Both b and c. (Supine and Prone)
Anterior refers to the :	Front surface of the body.
Which positioning line connects the upper lip/inferior nose to the external auditory meatus?	Acanthiomeatal
Motion of the head around the longitudinal axis is known as:	Rotation
The acanthion is an anatomic reference point at the junction of the:	Upper lip and nose
The positioning error that occurs when the longitudinal axis of the head is not aligned with the longitudinal axis of the body is known as:	Tilt
In the average skull, the petrous ridges form a _____ angle from the midline of the body.	47°
The tragus is associated with the:	Ear
The positioning line connecting the external auditory meatus and the outer orbital margin is known as the:	Orbitomeatal line
A long, narrow skull is known as:	Dolichocephalic
Which portion of the temporal bone contains the structures of the middle and inner ear?	petrous
The superior part of the mandible that articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone is the:	condyle
Which of the following bones form part of the orbit? 1.palatine 2.vomer 3.lacrimal	1 and 3
The transverse portion of the ethmoid bone that forms the roof of the nasal cavity is the:	cribriform plate
The majority of the nose is composed of the nasal bones.	False
Which portion of the mandible contains the sockets for the teeth?	Alveolar process
Which sutures are associated with the parietal bones? 1.sagittal 2.coronal 3.squamous	1, 2 and 3
The squamous suture is the joint between the occipital and parietal bones.	False
Which bone forms part of the hard palate and is shaped like the letter L?	Palatine
Which bones have an alveolar process? 1.mandible 2.zygoma 3.maxillae	1 and 3
Which bone forms a portion of the floor of the orbit, the anterior portion of the hard palate, and part of the floor and lateral border of the nasal cavity?	Maxilla
The zygomatic arch consists of processes from which bones? 1.zygoma 2.maxilla 3.temporal	1 and 3
The temporomandibular joint is formed by the mandibular condyle and the temporal fossa.	False
The sphenoid bone articulates with all other cranial bones.	True
Which term is not associated with the temporal bone?	Pterygoid
Which term is not associated with the frontal bone?	Infraorbital ridge
Which bone does not articulate with the right parietal bone?	Ethmoid
On a correctly positioned submentovertical image, the mandibular symphysis is:	superimposed on the frontal bone
If a kyphotic patient cannot tuck the chin down far enough for an AP axial (Towne) projection, which of the following should be done?	Angle tube more caudal than usual.
On a PA Caldwell projection of the skull, the petrous ridges:	fill the lower third of the orbits
The orbitomeatal line (OML) is used to position all of the following projections except the:	submentovertical
If the midsagittal plane is parallel with the tabletop and the interpupillary line is perpendicular to the image receptor, the projection is the:	lateral
The foramen magnum is demonstrated on which projection? 1.AP axial (Towne) 2.parietoacanthial (Waters) 3.PA Caldwell	1 and 2
For the submentovertical projection of the skull, the central ray is directed at right angles to the _____ line.	infraorbitomeatal
If the orbitomeatal line is slightly less than 37° to the plane of the image receptor when doing a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection the resultant image will show:	the petrosal shadows projected onto the lower antra
If the infraorbital line is perpendicular to the image receptor, how many degrees should the tube be angled for an AP axial (Towne) projection?	37
Medial or lateral displacement of the bony nasal septum can be demonstrated on which projections? 1.PA Caldwell 2.AP axial (Towne) 3.parietoacanthial (Waters)	1 and 3
If the midsagittal plane and the IOML are perpendicular to the table and a 37° caudal tube angle is used, the projection is the:	AP axial (Towne)
A radiographer observes the petrous ridges in the bottom third of the maxillary sinuses on a parietoacanthial (Waters) image. What action should the radiographer take?	Repeat the image, moving the chin farther up, away from chest.
Of the following projections, which best demonstrates the occipital bone?	submentovertical
For which projection is the patient’s head extended as much as possible?	submentovertex
What is the best criterion to use when evaluating the positioning accuracy of an AP axial (Towne) projection?	Petrous ridges should be symmetrical.
The best single projection/position for demonstrating a basal skull fracture is the:	submentovertex
Which of the following structures is not demonstrated on a lateral skull image?	occipital condyles
When positioning a PA Caldwell projection for facial bones, the midsagittal plane is:	perpendicular to the image receptor
Which projection is particularly useful for demonstrating depressed fractures of the frontal sinus?	lateral
On a modified parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for facial bones, the petrous ridges should:	lie below the maxillary antra
The central ray for a lateral projection of the facial bones enters at the:	zygoma
The central ray for a PA projection of the mandible is directed:	perpendicular to the image receptor
For an AP axial (Towne) projection of the mandible, the _____ line is perpendicular to the image receptor.	orbitomeatal
For an axiolateral projection of the mandibular body, the head is tilted:	30°
The central ray for a lateral projection of the cranium enters _____ the external auditory meatus.	2 inches above
The central ray for a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection for facial bones exits at the:	acanthion
If the head is placed in a true lateral position, an axiolateral mandible projection requires a tube angle of:	25°–35° cephalic
The central ray for a PA Caldwell projection for facial bones exits at the:	nasion
When positioning lateral facial bones, the midsagittal plane is placed:	parallel to the image receptor
Which projection best demonstrates a fracture of the mandibular condyle?	axiolateral
For the parietoacanthial projection of the nasal bones, the orbitomeatal line forms an angle of _____ with the plane of the image receptor.	37°
Which of the following are commonly included in a departmental protocol for nasal bones? 1.lateral 2.submentovertical 3.parietoacanthial (Waters)	1 and 3
Lateral displacement of the bony nasal septum is demonstrated on which projections? 1.lateral 2.PA Caldwell 3.parietoacanthial (Waters)	2 and 3
The midsagittal plane and the orbitomeatal line are perpendicular to the image receptor. Which projection is this?	PA
Which of the following best demonstrates the floor of the orbits?	modified parietoacanthial (Waters)
Which of the following is perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for the parietoorbital oblique (Rhese) projection of the orbits?	acanthiomeatal line
In the parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection, the head is positioned so that the _____ are in contact with the table.	nose, zygoma, and chin
When positioning a parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection, the head is adjusted so that the midsagittal plane forms an angle of _____ with the plane of the image receptor.	53°
On a properly positioned parieto-orbital oblique (Rhese) projection, the optic foramen is located in the _____ _____ quadrant of the orbital shadow.	lower, outer
For the submentovertical projection for the zygomatic arches, the central ray is directed at right angles to the _____ line.	infraorbitomeatal
Which of the following are commonly performed to demonstrate the zygomatic arches? 1.modified parietoacanthial (Waters) 2.submentovertical 3.AP axial (Towne)	2 and 3
When positioning the oblique axial (May) projection for zygomatic arches, the patient’s head is turned _____ _____ the affected side.	15°, away from
The oblique axial (May) projection is a variation of which projection?	submentovertex
On a PA Caldwell projection of the paranasal sinuses, the petrous ridges should:	fill the lower third of the orbits
The PA Caldwell projection primarily demonstrates which paranasal sinuses? 1.sphenoid 2.ethmoid 3.frontal	2 and 3
The parietoacanthial (Waters) projection best demonstrates which sinus group?	maxillary
The lateral projection best demonstrates which sinus group?	sphenoid
The submentovertical projection primarily demonstrates which paranasal sinuses? 1.sphenoid 2.ethmoid 3.frontal	1 and 2
The submentovertical projection effectively demonstrates the: 1.sphenoid sinuses 2.mandibular condyles 3.zygomatic arches	1 and 3
In the axial transoral (Pirie) projection, which sinus group is visualized through the open mouth?	sphenoid
The first cervical vertebra is atypical because it does not possess a:	body
The cervical intervertebral foramina project anteriorly at a __________ angle.	45°
The vertebral prominens of C7 derives its name from its:	large spinous process
The atlanto-occipital joint allows for _____ of the head. 1. flexion 2. rotation 3. lateral tilt	1 and 3
Which projection best demonstrates the cervical intervertebral foramina?	oblique
The second cervical vertebra has a large toothlike process projecting from it, which fits into the arch of C1. This process is called the:	dens
On a correctly positioned AP projection of the cervical spine, which vertebrae should be demonstrated?	C3–T2
When the AP open mouth projection is being performed, if the inferior margins of the upper teeth and the mastoid tips are exactly superimposed:	the patient is properly positioned
The spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae are best demonstrated by which projection?	lateral
Which structure passes through the transverse foramen?	vertebral artery
The thyroid cartilage is found at the level of:	C5
The recommended kVp range for AP and oblique cervical spine projections is:	75–80
The cervical spine has a _______________ curvature.	lordotic
In which projection of the cervical spine are the intervertebral foramina closest to the image receptor (the down side) best demonstrated?	PA oblique
What are the optimal tube angle and direction for AP oblique projections of the cervical spine?	15°–20°, cephalic
What are the tube angle and direction for an AP projection of the cervical spine?	15°–20°, cephalic
The chin should be slightly extended on a lateral cervical spine to ensure that the:	mandible is free of superimposition on the vertebral bodies
Which of the following should be demonstrated on an open mouth odontoid image? 1. dens 2. lateral masses 3. C2	1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are well visualized on a lateral image of the cervical spine? 1. intervertebral foramina 2. zygapophyseal joints 3. spinous processes	2 and 3
The LAO position of the cervical spine will visualize essentially the same structures as the:	RPO
Which vertebra is called the atlas?	C1
An abnormal posterior curvature of the spine (humpback deformity) is called:	kyphosis
An intervertebral foramen is formed by the _____ of one vertebra and the _____ of the vertebra below:	inferior vertebral notch, superior vertebral notch
The thoracic spine has a posterior convex curvature.	true
Most ribs articulate posteriorly with a thoracic vertebra at the: 1. vertebral body 2. inferior articular process 3. transverse process	1 and 3
Compared with lumbar vertebrae, the spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae:	are longer and point more sharply downward
What anatomic structure lies directly on top of the body of a thoracic vertebra?	intervertebral disk
The xiphoid tip lies at the level of:	T10
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine results in a condition called:	scoliosis
The soft, semigelatinous central portion of an intervertebral disk is called the:	nucleus pulposis
The iliac crest is at the approximate level of:	L4
The lumbosacral junction is located at the approximate level of the	anterior superior iliac spine
The posterior portion of the vertebral arch is formed by fusion of the:	two laminae
When performing an AP projection of the thoracic spine, the radiographer should:	place the anode at the T1 end
For a lateral thoracic spine, the arms are drawn forward at right angles to the patient to:	prevent the scapulae from superimposing on the vertebrae
To better demonstrate the vertebral bodies, the central ray for a swimmer’s lateral is sometimes angled:	5°–10° caudal
The upper edge of the image receptor for an AP projection of the thoracic spine should be:	1–2 inches above the upper border of the shoulders
For a lateral thoracic spine projection a _____ can be used to blur out the images of the ribs and pulmonary structures overlying the vertebral bodies.	breathing technique
Which structure is not clearly demonstrated on an AP projection of the thoracic spine?	intervertebral foramen
For the position shown in the above figure, the patient’s arms should be placed such that:	the arm nearest the table is raised above the head while the shoulder farthest from the table is depressed
A wedge filter is sometimes used during an AP thoracic spine examination to:	produce a more homogeneous density throughout the T-spine
Which types of patients benefit most by placing a radiolucent sponge under the thoracolumbar area for lateral thoracic spine projections?	thin females
For a thoracic spine for an AP projection to be properly centered, the central ray should enter:	3–4 inches below the jugular or manubrial notch
Which vertebrae should be clearly demonstrated for the position shown in the above figure?	C7–T4
Which zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated on a PA oblique (RAO) of the thoracic spine?	right
What is the purpose of using a breathing technique for a lateral thoracic spine?	to remove lung superimposition
Where is the central ray location for the position shown in the above figure?	T1
A radiographer examines a lateral thoracic spine image and notices that T1–T4 are not visualized. What action should be taken?	Turn the radiographic image in for reading because it was accurately positioned.
Oblique thoracic spine projections must demonstrate:	T1–T12
The patient is placed prone and the right side is rotated 70° away from the table. The patient position is best described as:	LAO
Refer below image for question 14-18. The name of the projection shown in the above figure is:	swimmer’s lateral
When taking the exam shown in the above figure, you notice that the patient did not stop breathing during the exposure. What action should be taken?	Turn the radiographic image in for reading; breathing may enhance image quality by obscuring overlying lung detail.
For scoliosis examinations of the lumbar spine, the PA projection is preferred over the AP because the PA:	results in lower patient dose
Lead blockers/shields are used to limit scatter radiation for examinations of the: 1. lateral sacrum 2. lateral coccyx 3. AP sacrum	1 and 2
For an AP projection of the coccyx, the central ray should enter the body:	2 inches above the symphysis pubis
For an oblique projection of the lumbar spine shown in the above figure, the central ray is placed _____ inch(es) to the _____ of the spinous processes.	1, right
To determine motion in the area of a spinal fusion of the lumbar spine, which of the following examinations is indicated?	upright lateral flexion and extension
The zygapophyseal joints on the side nearer the table are clearly demonstrated when the patient is in the _____ position.	RPO
Weight-bearing bending images of the lumbar spine are taken primarily to demonstrate:	degree of mobility after spinal fusion
Hyperflexion images of the lumbar spine are taken by having the patient bend ____ as much as possible.	forward
A lateral lumbar spine image should clearly demonstrate the: 1. intervertebral foramina 2. spinous processes 3. disk spaces	1, 2, and 3
Which of the following should be well demonstrated on an oblique lumbar spine image with the patient in the position shown in the above figure? 1right zygapophyseal joints 2right intervertebral foramina 3right superior and inferior articular processes	1 and 3
Which projection best demonstrates the intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine?	lateral
What is the optimal kVp range for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?	75–80
Which of the following are not clearly demonstrated on an AP projection of the lumbar spine?	spinous processes
The proper breathing instruction for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine is:	suspend breathing on expiration
For a lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction, the central ray is placed:	2 inches inferior to the iliac crest
The tube angle for a lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction is _____, _____.	5°–10°, caudal
If the spine is not parallel to the table for a lateral lumbar spine on a female patient, the central ray should be directed:	5° caudal
In the above figure, what is the projection?	AP
To open the L5–S1 joint space in the AP axial projection, the tube should be angled _____ cephalic.	35°
When analyzing an AP coccyx image, a radiographer observes that the coccyx is superimposed on the pubic bone. Which of the following is true?	The radiographer should angle the tube more caudal.
Compared with a routine lateral lumbar spine, the lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction usually requires:	more kVp
For an AP projection of the coccyx, the central ray is angled _____, _____.	10°, caudal
When a 14 x 17 inch image receptor is used, an AP lumbar spine should be centered:	at the level of the iliac crest
The routine image receptor size for a lateral projection of the L5–S1 junction is _____ inches.	8 x 10
Which of the following is correct concerning the AP projection of the sacrum?	15° cephalic angle of central ray
When examining an oblique lumbar spine image(in the above figure)a radiographer notes that the left zygapophyseal joints are not well demonstrated and that the pedicle is quite posterior to the vertebral body. What is the most probable positioning error?	There was no error; the part was properly positioned.
For AP projections of the lumbar spine, flat contact gonad shields should not be used for _____ patients.	female
In the above figure, what is the position of the patient?	RPO
What is the optimum patient angle for the oblique projection of the lumbar spine shown in the above figure?	45°
For a lateral projection of the sacrum, the image receptor is centered at the level of the:	anterior superior iliac spine
When radiation exists in the form of pure energy, it is referred to as:	electromagnetic
Sources of radiation are: 1.man-made 2.terrestrial 3.cosmic	1, 2, and 3
A non-ionized atom has an electric charge of:	zero
If an atom gains or loses neutrons, the result is an atom called a/an:	Isotope
The most common type of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic energy range and responsible for most scattered radiation during x-ray examinations is:	Compton
In the photoelectric interaction, the incoming x-ray interacts with a/an:	inner-shell electron
One radiation equivalent man (REM) is equal to _____________ milli-sieverts (mSv).	10
One sievert (Sv) is equal to ____________ radiation equivalent man (REM).	10
The first energy shell closest to the nucleus contains ___________ electrons.	two
Humans receive the greatest amount of radiation exposure from:	radon
After an atom is ionized, its’ electric charge status is changed.	False
In the Système Internationale d’ Unités (SI), the measure of electric current is the:	ampere
The number of protons in an atom is called the atomic:	number
The unit of energy is the joule (J).	True
When radiation exists in the form of matter, it is referred to as	particulate
A principal characteristic of matter is:	mass
One gray is equivalent to ___________ radiation absorbed dose (RAD)	100
There are _____________ naturally occurring elements identified on the Periodic Table of Elements.	92
Atoms that have been ionized assume a _________ electrical charge:	positive
As the electromagnetic energy increases, the wavelength gets __________ and _________ penetrating to matter.	shorter, more
The magnification factor may be represented by the following formula:	SID/SOD and (Image Width/Object Width)
Radiographic contrast is best defined as the:	degree of difference between the light and dark areas
A grid should be used when the body part being radiographed is:	thicker than 12 centimeters
A sharp difference between the light and dark areas of a radiographic image is termed:	short-scale contrast
To change from a short-scale contrast to a long-scale contrast:	decrease mAs and increase kVp
Primary beam filtration may be achieved by the use of a device (or devices) known as a:	all of the above
When a standard 40 inches SID is used, the approximate amount of magnification of most radiographic images would be:	1.1
The photographic properties of a radiograph consist of the following elements:	density and contrast
The term “geometric blur” or penumbra is associated with the effects of the following factor(s):	FSS, SID, and OID
When any of several combinations of mA and T will produce an equivalent amount of mAs, the result is called:	reciprocity law
Which of the following technical factor sets is likely to result in the greatest amount of magnification? mAs OID SID	30 6" 36"
Which one of the grid ratios listed below is more efficient than the others?	16:1
Select the exposure setting that will result in the greatest density: mA TIME SID	200 1/4 second 30"
A change in SID from an original position of 40 inches to an increased position of 60 inches will change the following effect of __________.	density (mA)
Heat unit (HU) capacity is determined by the following formula:	mA × T × kVp
To apply heel effect when radiographing a femur, position the thicker anatomic part beneath the:	cathode
The primary purpose of a grid is to reduce the effects of __________ on the image.	scattered radiation
The total amount of minimal beam filtration is:	2.5 mm
The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance expresses the relationship between:	distance and radiation intensity
Radiographic density is best defined as the:	degree of blackness in the radiograph
The x-ray tube focusing cup has a ____________ charge.	negative
The amount of electrons generated in the x-ray tube determines the ____________.	quantity and mA
The rotating anode is generally made of an alloy material with a high melting point. The following element(s) represent the most efficient material(s) for x-ray production:	tungsten and rhenium-tungsten
The most important component of a radiographic unit with regard to image production is the x-ray tube.	True
The positive terminal of an x-ray tube is the	anode
A rotating anode: 1.dissipates heat 2.has a larger target than a fixed anode 3.is driven by a motor	1, 2, and 3
X-rays are produced in the: 1.focal spot 2.anode 3.target	1, 2, and 3
The target metal used in x-ray tubes should have the following two properties	high atomic number, high melting point
The effective focal spot: 1.is smaller than the actual focal spot 2.is on the anode 3.determines the resolution	1, 2, and 3
The cloud of liberated electrons that remains in the vicinity of the hot filament is called:	space charge
Heat units may be determined with the following formula:	kVp × s × mA
The process of boiling off of electrons from a hot, metallic filament is called:	thermionic emission
The tube housing: 1.helps contain scattered x-rays 2.is designed to aid in heat dissipation 3.contains the glass envelope	1, 2, and 3
The cathode beam of an x-ray tube is the:	focused electron beam within the tube
The negative terminal of an x-ray tube is the	cathode

Which line should be perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA skull projection?

When performing a PA projection of the skull, which of the following lines or planes should be perpendicular to the image receptor (IR)? - Any frontal image of the skull (e.g. PA or AP) requires the midsagittal plane be perpendicular to the plane of the IR.

Which positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for a PA projection of the mandible quizlet?

3. the IOML is positioned perpendicular to the IR.

Which of the following is centered to the image receptor for the PA projection of the mandibular Rami?

Positioning TMG SINUS MANDIBLE.

Which 2 positioning lines or planes should be perpendicular to the IR for the PA projection of the skull?

How should the Midsagittal Plane and the Orbitomeatal Line (OML) be positioned for the PA/PA Axial Projection? The Midsagittal Plane should be perpendicular. The Orbitomeatal Line should be perpendicular.

Which positioning line is perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA projection of the mandible?

Radio graphic Imaging Protocols

Which line should be perpendicular to the image receptor for a PA skull projection?

Which positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for a PA projection of the mandible quizlet?

Which of the following is centered to the image receptor for the PA projection of the mandibular Rami?

Which 2 positioning lines or planes should be perpendicular to the IR for the PA projection of the skull?

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